Part Four of the New Testament Survey Series
Khen LimImage source: traditionalcatholicnetwork.com
From his letter’s traditional introduction of addressees
(1:1), we know that it is an outreach to the twelve tribes of Israel that were,
by then, scattered abroad. For them, James offered instructions as to their
code of conduct in anticipation of the return of the Messiah (5:7-8). As such,
the letter has a strong moralistic tone as James exhorts his readers to behave
piously and uprightly.
Yet as well, this letter has no closing that we have come to
expect from someone like Paul who would have had requests for prayers,
additional greetings or disclosure of intended travels or even a benediction.
Since none of these were present, some view James’ letter as one with a formal
complexion, written with the intention of reaching a wider readership, which
makes a lot of sense because the Diaspora would have been quite a
geographically distant proposition even by then.
The striking feature in James’ letter is his coverage on
justification and works (2:17-18, 20-26). To that end, some modern biblical
scholars view it not only as a problem for those who subscribe to Paul’s
teaching on faith alone (Eph 2:8-9) but one that is extreme to the extent that
the label ‘anti-nomianism’ has been used to describe the letter. Even though it
is unlikely to be James’ intention, even Martin Luther unfortunately
mislabelled his work as ‘an epistle of straw.’ It is clear that James’ letter
was not only misconstrued but many modern biblical scholars have been incapable
of recognising it for what it is really worth.
In actuality, the real worth of James’ teaching is that it is
actually complementary to Paul’s theology. To reconcile the both as one and the
same, we must accept that James (emphasises role of works in justification) and
Paul (focuses on justification by faith alone) have actually reached the same
conclusion but from different perspectives.
We may argue that because of this misconstrued controversy,
history bore witness to the cause and rise of the Reformation and as a result,
this issue between James and Paul could well become one of the most crucial
questions in Christian theology today and a topic that cannot be underestimated
because of how the modern biblical scholars are angling for.
Yet there can only be one solitary position in Christian
theology no matter how we view the reality of such a comparison. Just as no one
can claim to have faith without producing any good works, James is actually
saying that when a person is truly justified by faith, he will naturally have the tendency to produce
good works in his life simply because genuine faith will inherently open many
ways for him to do so to God’s glory (2:20-26). By no measure if James saying
that justification is by faith plus works but rather that the works will
naturally materialise specifically because of one’s true faith (2:14, 17, 20,
26).
If only modern biblical scholars were to look a little deeper,
that will come to see that Paul also has the same interpretation as well. In
his letter to the Ephesians (Eph 2:10), he does say that we are all created to
do good works and by the good fruit we produce, our lives are listed (Gal
5:22-23).
That is the same as saying that a person renewed by his faith
in Christ cannot ever not produce any good works (2 Cor 5:17). From this alone,
it doesn’t take a rocket scientist to actually work out that James and Paul
concur on the issue of justification and faith; yet we still have to contend
with needless controversies.
As Paul focuses on our justification with God, James
emphasises on the works that shape this very same justification. To achieve that
end, James targeted Jewish Christians, encouraging them to mature in their
newfound Christian faith (1:2-18) and hence, find true meaning and purpose in
their suffering (1:2-4) and pray in faith for wisdom (1:5-8).
The Book of James is a letter that deals with the walk of
faith through genuine religion (1:1-27), genuine faith (2:1-3:12) and genuine
wisdom (3:13-5:20). Remarkably, there is a semblance to Jesus’ own Sermon on
the Mount (Mt 5-7) in which the first three chapters talk about the
characteristics of the walk of faith, social justice and faith in action. Because
of this, James’ work covers the common view concerning the relationship between
faith and works but his letter also effectively deals with the following:
-
Community dissensions (3:1-4:12)
-
Danger of a thoughtless
tongue (3:1-12)
-
Incorrect wisdom (3:13-18)
- Frustrated desires (4:1-3)
In his letter, James also encourages his readers to include
God in all their plans (4:13-17) while at the same time, discourages Jewish
Christians from taking oaths (5:12) but instead to pray for physical healing
(5:13-18) and to be mutually caring about one another’s spiritual wellbeing
(5:19-20).
As some of us have come to suspect, authorship authenticity
for the Book of James is again contested by modern biblical scholars who claim
that it is not the James who is the brother of Jesus (Mt 13:55, Mk 6:3) but in
fact someone else who happens to share the same first name. While such
counterclaims may never go away, there is neither sufficient opposition nor
evidence to support them.
What is, on the other hand, very worth noting is that despite
James being a brother to Jesus, he was initially not a believer (Jn 7:3-5) at
least not until Jesus was resurrected (Acts 1:14, 1 Cor 15:7, Gal 1:19).
Thereafter James was transformed, eventually becoming the head of the Jerusalem
church whereupon he was often mentioned as a “pillar of the church” (Gal 2:9).
Jerusalem Council (harvestcenterchurch.net)
If it is true that James’ letter was written around 46AD-48AD
(just before the Jerusalem Council came into session in 49AD-50AD, cf. Acts
15), then that makes it the oldest book in the New Testament. However there are
some who believe the letter was written earlier and they point to James’ lack
of reference to the issue of Gentile circumcision including his use of the
Greek term for ‘synagogue,’ the former of which was a key topic at the
Jerusalem Council. You would be correct to think that all of these issues have
distinctive Jewish overtones.
The Josephus school of thought, on the other hand, puts James’
letter at a time just before he was martyred in 62AD, citing his response to Paul’s
letters. He suggested that the Pauline letters would have taken some time to
become sufficiently well known to James for the contents to be made known. As a
counter-response, perhaps James was merely responding to how people viewed
Paul’s theology rather than looking for a direct riposte to Paul. In that
sense, maybe James had actually written his letter before he could read any of
Paul’s.
Perhaps also James wrote it while Paul was writing his treatise on justification by faith. And
if that is the case, then it wouldn’t have been possible for Paul to have held
any dialogue on such a matter with James particularly before the Jerusalem
Council could meet (Acts 15).
Acts 8:1 leads us to believe that James could have written the
letter from Jerusalem to Jewish Christians who had already scattered abroad
since 1AD. These are God’s Chosen People who had gone on to form the Diaspora
and therefore, could well be those from the Northern (Israel) rather than the
Southern Kingdom (Judah). These are the ones for whom the letter would have
been meant (1:25, 2:2, 8-13) who are likely to have inhabited within Gentile
communities outside of Palestine to its north and east.
To the modern reader, James’ letter could be a composite of
multiple sermons stitched to flow quite quickly but fluently from one topic to
another. We can already see the instructional nature of the letter with
numerous commands but we also see it as a form of pastoral admonition as well.
Is James Jesus’ Brother?
Image source: thedivulgers.com
If there ever is a flashpoint between the Roman Catholics and
the Protestants, this is one of many. The Roman Catholics have a high degree of
sensitivity about Jesus having not one but any
number of siblings and the defence is naturally understandable because for
Christ to have brothers and sisters would have had negated the alleged
perpetual virginity of Mary.
If that were to happen, a substantial part of the papal
theology would have collapsed. Who knows what could happen to Roman Catholicism
if that occurs. But let’s look at some of the Roman Catholic views of James
being Jesus’ brother. Here are four:
Firstly, Roman Catholics like to go on the use of the word
‘brother’ as being contextual. In Greek (the language that the New Testament is
founded on), the word ‘adelphos’ (adelfos) has a literal meaning and that is, ‘brother.’ Although the
word is at times interchangeable with other forms of relatives, this is the
literal – and normal – meaning. If the relationship is expressly one of
cousins, then there is a different and specific word for that and it is not adelfos.
Furthermore, if they – including James – were actually Jesus’
cousins, why would they be so often described as being with Mary, Jesus’
mother? Nothing in Scripture opens vagaries as to the context of Jesus’ mother
and His brothers coming to see Him. Nothing of any specificity hints of
anything but His literal, blooded half-brothers.
Secondly, Roman Catholics want us to accept that James, like
other brothers and sisters of Jesus are offspring from Joseph’s earlier
marriage. Delving into this particular form of argument reveals a completely
invented gamut of storytelling the likes of which is not corroborated by the
Bible. It has been said by Epiphanius, Bishop of Salamis, a contemporary of
fourth-century Jerome, that not only was Joseph married before he met Mary, he
was widowed and had multiple children of whom James was one.
The deeply troubling nature of this claim is that the Bible
does not mention any of it. Furthermore, it does not add up because if Joseph
already had children before his marriage to Mary, then where were they went the
young couple made their way to Bethlehem (Lk 2:4-7)? What about their trip to
Egypt (Mt 2:13-15) or the one back to Nazareth? (Mt 2:20-23)
Thirdly the recorded argument – in fact, the first of its kind
between Jerome and another fourth-century theologian by the name of Helvidius –
was based on this controversy. While Helvidius wrote that Mary had other
children with her husband, Joseph after
the virgin birth of Jesus, Jerome was vociferous in defending Mary as a virgin
for all the days of her life thereafter, claiming that those other children
were those of Mary of Clopas who was Jesus’ aunt (and his mother’s sister).
This would make them cousins, which is probably where the other Roman Catholic
explanations could have derived from.
On the other hand, Jesus’ siblings – essentially his brothers
– are specifically mentioned and named in not one but several verses in Scripture such as Mt 12:46, Lk 8:19 and Mk 3:31,
all of whom records Jesus’ mother and brothers coming to see Him. Mt 13:55
names them as James, Joseph, Simon and Jude (or Judas).
Jesus also had sisters but they remain unknown in name and
number (Mt 13:56). While Jn 7:1-10 and Acts 1:14 offer more details to the
activities and goings-on of Jesus’ brothers and mother, Gal 1:19 does reveal
that James was unreservedly Jesus’ actual
and real brother.
So here are some Q&As that could help you to further
establish your understanding:
Q. If Jesus had siblings, wouldn’t
common sense tell us that as descendants from Jesus’ mother, they would be
proud of their relationship with their famous brother? Furthermore wouldn’t
they be claiming their rightful place as Mary’s descendants? Yet none of this
happened!
A: That may be because Jesus’ own brothers might not have
accepted that He was the Son of God. Remember that James was an unbeliever
until Jesus was resurrected. Just because they were siblings does not mean they
all buy the same argument. That is what we all call sibling rivalry.
Q. The Roman Catholic
Church has unhesitatingly proclaimed that Mary was ever a virgin. If this
wasn’t true, why hadn’t any of Jesus’ brothers and sisters publically renounced
their mother’s virginity and claim it as a lie? That would be because Mary had
no other children apart from Jesus who was immaculately conceived with the Holy
Spirit.
A. No, it is because God willed that Mary would have only one virgin birth that delivered Jesus
but that did not mean that He would prohibit her or seal up her womb from
having her own biological offspring. In other words, yes, Mary had a virgin
birth and for all aims and intentions, Jesus’ brothers and sisters would have
been aware of this revelation but knew that because they were born of the same
mother, she couldn’t possibly be considered a virgin anymore in their view.
Q. If Mary did have other
children, Jesus would not have been as popular as He was. We know Jesus was
popular because recognisably, He was the promised Messiah who was also the
fulfilment of prophecies recorded in the Old Testament. Jesus fleshed out the
words as recorded in the Gospel of Matthew, which says, “All this took place to
fulfil what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: ‘Look, the virgin
shall conceive and bear a Son and they shall name Him Emmanuel,’ which means,
‘God is with us’” (Mt 1:22-23). Therefore if Mary did have other offspring,
that prophecy concerning the virginity of Mary would have remained unfulfilled.
And Jesus would not have been recognised as being the Messiah.
A. Again, not true. The writer is confusing Mary’s virgin birth
with her other births. God distinguished the two. Of the many children that
Mary gave birth to, only the first was by ‘immaculate conception.’ The rest
weren’t. The prophecies of the Old Testament clearly applies to the one and
first birth by Mary. They do not have to mention anything about the other births because they bore little to no
significance to the messianic message, which was exclusively meant for the one
named Emmanuel.
Where Matthew 1:22-23 says, “Look, the virgin shall conceive
and bear a Son,” it does not tacitly mean that the virginity of Mary would not
have been fulfilled unless Jesus was the only birth. It only meant that when
that dialogue took place, Mary was still a virgin. One has to be very clear
about how the English was structured or from the exegetical perspective, how
the original Greek was worded.
5. The Gospel of Luke
records how Jesus was conceived, saying, “The angel said to her, ‘The Holy
Spirit will come upon you and the power of the Most High will overshadow you;
therefore the Child to be born will be holy; He will be called Son of God’” (Lk
1:35). The conception of Jesus had therefore been a result of a union between
the Holy Spirit and Mary. It is a union or a marriage blessed by God, which
would place Mary in an unassailable position as being one obligated to retain a
vow of chastity in order to maintain perpetual virginity after the birth of
Jesus. If Mary were to consummate her marriage with Joseph after Jesus was
born, that would have been adulterous in God’s eyes.
A. Totally disagree. This aforementioned union is a marriage
blessed no less by God and no less different to Christian marriages in the
witness of God the Highest today. The union spoken of does not necessarily
compel Mary to be confined to a position where she would never be able to give
birth to other children with her flesh-and-blood husband, Joseph.
To even remotely suggest that would be cruel on her. Mary’s
wedding to Joseph was also a marital union that was blessed by God. God
wouldn’t have had it differently because to do so would be to render their
marriage illegitimate in the eyes of law at that time. If that were the case,
how would Mary’s marriage and life be of glory to God?
Q. Mk 6:3 says, “‘Is not
this the carpenter, the son of Mary, and brother of James and Joses and Judas
and Simon and are not his sisters here with us?’ And they were offence at him.”
Notice here that there is only one reference to “the son of Mary,” that being
Jesus. The others are not called the sons of Mary but rather the brothers of
Jesus. If they would have been the brothers of Jesus, logically, they too would
have been referred to as the sons of Mary.
A. This is merely an example of how the English language can be
deceptively used, twisted to gain a one-sided (myopic) interpretation. It could
have easily gone the other way as well. The reference to “the son of Mary”
could have been the person’s specific question (concerning identity) aimed at a
specific scenario (a setting of Jesus among his other siblings) about a
specific person (Jesus Himself). In a similar question, I could be querying a
woman about her one particular son out of her other children and asked in
exactly the same manner. And it wouldn’t have made any difference.
Q. Because Jesus had no
biological brothers, we can speculate concerning their statuses. They could
have been members of Jesus’ religious group. Or they could have been cousins.
They could have been adopted by Joseph and Mary after Jesus was born.
Alternatively if Joseph had fathered children from his previous marriage and
became a widower, then they would be Jesus’ half-brothers. While all of these
scenarios are possible, none contradict the fact that Jesus did not have any
biological siblings who shared Mary and Joseph as blooded parents. Those who
claim otherwise have failed to study the facts found in the Holy Bible.
A. While none of this is even true, it is a very obviously
laboured and over-engineered defence of the alleged perpetual virginity of
Mary. It doesn’t wash then and it will not wash now. We are all too aware that
Roman Catholics are desperate to defend this stand vigorously because if they
didn’t, a substantial portion of their theology would have collapsed asunder.
We need to understand it from this perspective and then simply
move on. There is no point in perpetuating this argument. What we know comforts
us. What we believe in entrenches our theology. We are okay with that. And that
is all that matters. Roman Catholics can believe what they want. It’s a free
world but there is no need for anyone to become hateful or ugly about it.
Part Five (First and Second Letters of Peter) will be available on January 6 2016
Part Five (First and Second Letters of Peter) will be available on January 6 2016
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